703 Materials - Unit Wise


CHN 703(O) Unit 1 Chemotherapeutic agents


1.  Which type of malaria is usually fatal?

A.    severe malaria

B.     cerebral malaria

C.     a ll of them can be fatal

D.    placental malaria


2.  What part of the body do these malaria parasites feed on?

A.    brain tissue

B.     muscles

C.     r ed blood cells

D.    intestinal lining


3.  How long must a malaria parasite grow in its host before infection can be spread to a human being?

A.    two weeks

B.     one month

C.     a week or more

D.    twenty-four hours


4.  What are the different means of the classification of viruses? Select all the correct options below A) Structure of the viruses B) Transmission of diseases by viruses C) Biochemical properties of the viruses D) Host range of the viruses

a)      All the above

b)     A, B and C

c)      B, C and D

d)     A and B


5.  All of the following are the characteristics of the structure of the virus, EXCEPT?

A.    The capsid of the viruses is made up of protein

B.     The size of viruses may range from 18 nm to 300 nm

C.     T he outer layer of all viruses consists of a lipid membrane

D.    Virus consists of either DNA or RNA genome


6.  Which of the following is the largest virus?

A.    Flu virus

B.     S mallpox virus

C.     Dengue virus

D.    Polio virus


7.  Which of the following does not contain chlorophyll

A.    Algae

B.     Pteridophyta

C.     F ungi

D.    Bryophyta


8.  What are the symptoms of active TB?

A.    Loss of appetite

B.     A ll of the above

C.     Weight loss

D.    Night sweats


9.  How is TB treated?

A.    Chemotherapy

B.     Surgery

C.     Antibiotics

D.    A ntiviral medicines


10.   How is TB diagnosed?

A.    Chest X-ray

B.     Skin test

C.     A ll of the above

D.    Sample of sputum


11.   Which of the following drug inhibits the early stage of viral replication??

A.    Methisazone

B.     Idoxuridine

C.     A mantadinum

D.    Acyclovir


12.   There are four kinds of malaria that can infect humans. They are all spread by what?

A.    a mosquito bite

B.     a tick bite

C.     a worm in the intestine

D.    a tsetse fly bite


13.   How soon, after infection, will a person feel usually begin to feel ill?

A.    4 days

B.     n one of these

C.     6 days

D.    2 days


14.   Which of the following drug is used to treat parasitic disease??

A.    8-Hydroxyquinoline 

B.     Streptomycin

C.     Amphotericin B

D.    Hydroxychloroquine


15.   Who is at risk of developing tuberculosis in this country?

A.    A ll of the above

B.     People taking certain medicines

C.     Migrant farm workers

D.    People with HIV


16.   Which of the following drugs inhibit herpes viruses?

A.    Amantadine

B.     Oseltamivir

C.     Azidothymidine

D.    A cyclovir


17.   How do you get TB?

A.    Through sexual contact

B.     Through blood

C.     Through contaminated food

D.    T hrough the air


18.   Which of the following drug inhibits the creation of glucan in fungel cell??

A.    Butanafine

B.     Abafulgin

C.     Micafulgin

D.    Fluconazole


19.   Which of the following drug is used in leprosy??

A.    E thionamide

B.     Abafulgin

C.     Methisazone

D.    Amantadinum


20.   What makes TB hard to diagnose?

A.    Symptoms come and go

B.     Symptoms aren't always obvious

C.     T he disease may take years to become

D.    active A and B


21.   Which of the following drug is not used in Tuberculosis??

A.    Streptomycin

B.     A bafulgin

C.     Ethionamide

D.    Ethanbutol hydrochloride


22.   Once malaria parasites enter a person's blood they then travel to which organ?

A.    stomach

B.     heart

C.     kidneys

D.    l iver


23.   Why are drug combinations essential for HIV?

A.    Single drugs are not completely inhibitory

B.     Mutations negate the effect of one drug

C.     Combinations of antibiotics are effective versus TB

D.    T he virus cannot mutate vs a combination


24.   Which season is best for the growth of the fungus?

A.    Winter

B.     R ainy

C.     All the above

D.    Summer


25.   which one following is category of leprosy?

A.    Tuberculoid

B.     Intermediate

C.     Borderline

D.    A ll of above


CHN 703(O) Unit 2 CNS Drugs


1.  Which of the following drug is anticonvulsant drug??

A.    Methisazone

B.     P henobarbital

C.     Maprobamate

D.    Streptomycin


2.  Which of the following is neurolaptic drug

A.    C hloropromazine

B.     Isocarboxazid

C.     Propronolol

D.    Metoprelol


3.  Which of the following drug is found effective and potent in case of seizur??

A.    Cycrimine

B.     M ethsuximide

C.     Ethotoin

D.    Ethopropazine


4.  Which of the following drug is not anti anxiety drug but used to combact symptoms of anxiety??

A.    Diazepam

B.     M etoprelol

C.     Chloropromazine

D.    Maprobamate


5.  Which of the following drug is not used for Addiction??

A.    Dacarbazine

B.     C hloropromazine

C.     Isocarboxazid

D.    Bifemelane


6.  An anxiety disorder is:

A.    An emotional state identified by panic attacks.

B.     An emotional condition classified by excessive checking.

C.     A n excessive or aroused state characterized by feelings of apprehension, uncertainty and

f ear

D.    Disordered thinking.


7.  Antidepressant drugs inhibits the activity of

A.    KGP enzyme

B.     N oradreniline

C.     CCQ enzymes

D.    E nzymes MAO A & B


8.  Anxiolytics are also used for...

A.    All of the above

B.     insomnia

C.     M uscle relaxation in specific neuromusclar disorder

D.    Treatment of epilepsy


9.  A long-term user of cocaine may well develop symptoms of other psychological disorders, such as:

A.    Eating disorders

B.     A ll of three

C.     Social phobia

D.    Major depression


10.   Which of the following is not class of anti convulsant?

A.    Succinimides

B.     P heneyclidine hydro chloride

C.     Barbiturates

D.    Hydantoin derivative


11.   What mixture of gases are used in anesthesia?

A.    O 2 and N2O

B.     CO2 and N2O

C.     O2 and CO2

D.    O2, CO2 and N2O


12.   Which of the drug produce rapid, intense emotional swings??

A.    Barbiturates

B.     Ethotoin

C.     D imethyltryptamide

D.    Chloropromazine


13.   Hallucinogenic are known as....

A.    Antiolytics

B.     Neurolaptic

C.     P sychomimetic

D.    Anti-seizur drugs


14.   Which of the following is antiolytics?

A.    Iodoquinol

B.     Reserpine

C.     D iazepam

D.    Pipradol


15.   Tranquilizers are used for...

A.    Bipolar disease

B.     Tuberculosis

C.     A nxiety

D.    Heart attack


16.   Drugs called Benzodiazepines are used to treat:

A.    Depression.

B.     Schizophrenia.

C.     Mood disorders

D.    A nxiety disorders.


17.   Antipsychotics are also known as... A) Neurolaptics. B) Transquilizers C)Antileprotics D)Antidepressants

a)      A and C

b)     All the above

c)      A and B

d)     A,B and C


18.   Antidepressant therapeutic effects may not seen for two or four weeks:

A.    Serotonin specific reuptake inhibitor

B.     T ricyclic antidepressant

C.     Both

D.    None


19.   Primary agent used in chronic management of bipolar disorder :

A.    Sufentanil

B.     L ithium

C.     Imipramine

D.    Paroxetine


20.   Shortest acting benzodiazepine:

A.    Diazepam

B.     Chlordiazepoxide

C.     Clonazepam

D.    T riazolam


21.   which of the following neurotransmitter is involved in Parkinson’s disease?

A.    Acetylcholine

B.     Glutamate

C.     Dopamine

D.    A ll of above


22.   Indicate the drug that induces parkinsonian syndromes:

A.    C hlorpromazine

B.     Diazepam

C.     Triazolam

D.    Carbamazepine


23.   which of the following agents is precursor of dopamine?

A.    Bromocriptine

B.     L evodopa

C.     Selegiline

D.    Amantadine


24.   Which of the following antipsychotic drug is typical?

A.    Clozapine

B.     Quetiapine

C.     H aloperidol

D.    Olanzapine


25.   Indicate the atypical antipsychotic drug:

A.    Haloperidol

B.     C lozapine

C.     Thioridazine

D.    Thiothixene


CHN 703(O) Unit 3 Cardiac Drugs & Diuretics


1.  Adverse effects associated with thiazide diuretic use:

A.    Gout

B.     Potassium depletion

C.     B oth

D.     None of above


2.  Adverse effects associated with loop diuretics:

A.    Potassium deplation

B.     Ototoxicity

C.     Gout

D.    A ll of above


3.  Clinical use of clonidine:

A.    Analgesic

B.     Antihypertensive

C.     B oth

D.    Neither


4.  Antihypertensive drug effect inhibited by imipramine or cocaine:

A.    Metoprolol

B.     Proponolol

C.     G uanethidine

D.    Triamterene


5.  Aspirin

A.    Reduces mortality after a myocardial infarction

B.     Must be discontinued if the patient complains of dyspepsia

C.     Is effective in primary prevention of myocardial infarction

D.    Prevents Stroke

E.     Gives additive benefit when combined with warfarin after pulmonary embolism


6.    Beta blockers

A.    Reduce angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand

B.     Are contraindicated in heart failure

C.     Are contraindicated in chronic obstructive airway disease

D.    Reduce left ventricular hypertrophy

E.     Reduce the incidence of sudden cardiac death after myocardial infarction


7.  Antihypertensive drugs                                 

A.    R educed evaluated blood pressure

B.     Induces evaluated blood pressure

C.     A & B both

D.    None of above


8.  Symptoms of hypertension                          

A.    High blood pressure

B.     Chest pain

C.     Severe headache

D.    A ll of above


9.  which of the following is not Antihypertensive Drugs?

A.    Captopril

B.     Ethacrynic acid

C.     Captopril

D.    L idocaine


10.   Antiarrhythmic drugs            

A.    U sed to treat abnormal heart rhythms

B.     Used to reduce blood pressure

C.     All of above

D.    None of above


11.   Symptoms of Arrhythmia

A.    Chest pain

B.     Dizziness

C.     Shortness of breath

D.    A ll of above


12.   Example of Antiarrhythmic drugs are

A.    Lidocaine

B.     Procainamide

C.     Amiodarone

D.    A ll of above


13.   Antihyperlepidemic drugs            

A.    Used in the treatment of high levels of fats

B.     Used in the treatment of high cholesterol

C.     A & B

D.    None of above


14.   symptoms of hyperlipidemia

A.    Chest pain

B.     Cramps

C.     Sores on the toes

D.    A ll of above


15.   which of the following is not examples of Antihyperlipedemic drugs?

A.    Nicotinic Acid

B.     Clofibrate

C.     Evilocumab

D.    C aptopril


16.   Antianginals are               

A.    U sed in the treatment of angina pectoris

B.     Used in the treatment of hypertension

C.     Used in the treatment of hyperlipidemia

D.    Used in the treatment of leprosy


17.   Symptoms of angina pectoris

A.    Chest pain

B.     Heaviness

C.     Squeezing

D.    A ll of above


18.   which of the following is example of antianginals agents?

A.    R anolazine

B.     Nicotinic acid

C.     Captopril

D.    Ethacrynic Acid


19.   Diuretics are             _

A.    Increase the amount of urine

B.     Promote the removal from the body of excess water and salt

C.     A & B

D.    None of above


20.   Symptoms of diuresis

A.    Low sodium levels

B.     Muscle cramps

C.     Thirst

D.    A ll of above


21.   which of the following is not class of diuretics?

A.    Mercurial

B.     Non mercurial

C.     A & B

D.    None of above


22.   Example of Osmotic Diuretics

A.    U rea

B.     Aspirin

C.     Thiazide

D.    Chlorthiazide


23.   Example of Acidic Diuretics

A.    A mmonium Chloride

B.     Ammonium Acetate

C.     Aluminum Chloride

D.    Calcium Chloride


24.   Furosemide is example of              

A.    S ulphonyl benzoic acid derivative

B.     Phenoxyacetic acid derivative

C.     Thiazide derivative

D.    Hydroxythiazide derivative


25.   Disulphamide is example of                          

A.    C Ase Inhibitor

B.     Phenoxyacetic acid derivative

C.     Thiazide derivative

D.    Hydroxythiazide derivative


CHN 703(O) Unit 4 Antidiabetic, Hypertensive and Anticancer Drugs


1.  High blood pressure is the main cause of which of these?

A.    Cancer

B.     S trokes

C.     Congestive heart failure

D.    Diabetes


2.  Which of these can increase your risk of high blood pressure?

A.    Obesity

B.     Smoking

C.     A family history of high blood pressure

D.    A ll of the three


3.  What is the most common symptom of high blood pressure?

A.    F atigue

B.     Racing heartbeat

C.     High body temperature

D.    It has no symptoms that you notice


4.  At what age should you have your first screening for high blood pressure?

A. 1 8

B.     30

C.     50

D.    16


5.  In which age group of men does the risk for high blood pressure go up?

A. 6 0 to 69

B.     70 to 79

C.     50 to 59

D.    40 to 49


6.  At what point is blood pressure considered "high"?

A.    210 over 120

B.     120 over 80

C.     1 30 over 80

D.    140 over 90


7.  What can you do to control high blood pressure?

A.    A ll of the above

B.     Take the blood pressure medicine prescribed by your doctor

C.     Get to and stay at a healthy weight E

D.    exercise regularly


8.  Why does reducing how much salt you eat help prevent high blood pressure?

A.    I t helps keep your heartbeat steady

B.     It allows vessels to relax

C.     It raises levels of HDL ("good") cholesterol

D.    It reduces fluid buildup in the body


9.  Which of these contribute to high blood pressure?

A.    Getting a lot of vitamin C

B.     A ll of the above

C.     Getting a lot of calcium

D.    Drinking a lot of alcohol


10.   The numbers in blood pressure reading:

A.    V ary, depending on the time of day your blood pressure is checked

B.     Get lower with high levels of stress

C.     Are the same for people of the same age and weight

D.    Stay the same throughout the day


11.   Excessive use of tolbutamide will lead to

A.    Diarrhea

B.     P rolonged hypoglycemia

C.     Tolerance to alcohol

D.    Acidosis


12.   Preferred route of insulin is

A.    Oral

B.     S ubcutaneous

C.     Sublingual

D.    Enteric coated tabs


13.   Longest acting insulin is

A.    Insulin zinc suspension

B.     Isophane insulin

C.     Globin zinc insulin

D.    p rotamine zinc insulin


14.   Normal blood glucose level for non-diabetic should be

A.    B etween 3.9 and 7.1 mmole/L

B.     Between 1.0 and 3.8 mole/L

C.     Between 7.5 and 10.0 mmole/L

D.    None of above


15.   Diabetes is also known as

A.    H ypoglycemia

B.     Hypertension

C.     Hyperglycemia

D.    None of above


16.   which of the following is not type of diabetes?

A.    Diabetic Insipidus

B.     Diabetic mellitus

C.     N one of above

D.    All of above


17.   Insulin is

A.    P olypeptide

B.     Polysaccharide

C.     Polyamide

D.    Polyester


18.   Insulin contains

A.    0 .3 to 0.6 % zinc

B.     0.7 to 0.9 % zinc

C.     0.1 to 0.2 % zinc

D.    1.0 to 1.5 % zinc


19.   which of the following is not type oral hypoglycaemic agents?

A.    Sulphonyl ureas

B.     Non sulphonyl ureas

C.     Bisguanidine

D.    i nsulin


20.   Anticancer drugs also known as

A.    Anti-neoplastic agent

B.     Anti-tumour drugs

C.     A & B

D.    None of above


21.   Which of the following is cancer causing agents?

A.    Tobacco

B.     Ionizing radiation

C.     Viral and bacterial infection

D.    A ll of above


22.   Methotrexate prevents synthesis of DNA and RNA by inhibiting the production of nucleic acids. Drugs such as methotrexate that interfere with vital cellular functions by mimicking compounds in cells are called

A.    Genotoxic drugs

B.     A ntimetabolites

C.     Spindle inhibitor

D.    Angiogenesis inhibitors


23.   Radiation is used to

A.    Destroy healthy tissues surrounding a tumour, preventing the conversion of those cells

B.     K ill cancer cells directly via the induction of DNA damage and cell death

C.     Prevent cancer growth by destroying nearly blood vessels

D.    Force normal cells to kill nearby cancer cells


 24.   Side effects of chemotherapy

A.    Nausea

B.     Hair loss

C.     Increased susceptibility to infection

D.    A ll of above


 25.   Different cell types may be identified by receptors located on their surface.       _ therapies take advantage of this to deliver radiation to cancer cells.

A.    Local radiations

B.     Radiation induced gene

C.     Receptor targeted radiation

D.    A uger emitting radiolabelled molecular












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